Uit mijn databank van 160 mb aan examenvragen heb ik het volgende komplete exmanes van ops voor je kunnen vinden. Voor de rest heb ik alleen maar losse vragen. Copy en paste in word
Ik hoop dat je er wat aan hebt, succes
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES Juli 2000
1. Wat is de formule expressing de travel precission during transonic and polar flights?
15º/hr sinLm
g (sinLm- sinLo)
g sinLM
g/2sinLm
2. For operation in
Na een accident, hoelang Flight data recorder bewaren?
60 dagen
30 dagen
45 dagen
90 dagen.
3. Kun je een carb. icing krijgen als de temp. 30 graden is humidity van 40 % en vrij van bewolking?
geen kans
4. Mist in de cabine, pressure en temp. drop, waar duidt dit op?
fast decompression.
5. MDH is reffered to treshold alt. if runway treshold is;
2 m (7ft) below aerodrome alt
2 m (7ft) above aerodrome alt
6. CAT C vliegtuig, een indirect visuel approach gevolgd door een visuel manoevring mag alleen als de horizontale visibility min. is;
2400m
1500m
1600m
3600m .
7. Course is plotted minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K a vector KK' which is equal to;
wind at K
wind at K'
mean wind up to next ground isochrone
mean wind from preceding ground isochrone
8. Vlgt vliegt in een horizontal tail wind gust, wat is het gevolg?
a/c tends to descent
9. Een continous loop fire detector operates op het principe dat een increase in temp. produces;
een increase in resistance
een decrease in resistance
een increase in pressure
10. Voor welke vliegtuigen is een FDR verplicht?
> 5700kg
> 20000kg
> 14000kg
> 27000kg
11. Je ziet een vliegtuig van rechtsvoor naar linksvoor vliegen, welk licht zie je?
steady red
steady green
flashing green
flashing red
12. Vraag over CDU/INS, DSTK 100, TK 120 wat is waar?
TKE is 10 graden rechts
je divert van je DSTK
je convergeert naar je DSTK
13. Fire in a wheel, wat is de beste extinguisher?
powder.
APW
Foam
CO2
14. Op een runway 4mm water, hoe heet dit?
contaminated
flooded
15. Na een lek volgt er een slow decompression, wat geeft de cabin ROC indicator aan?
rate of climb
rate of descent.
16. Hazardous material waar?
ICAO appendix 18
ICAO appendix 8
Washington convention
Inst. 300 3-6-1957
17. Gridnavigatie, wat is de bearing van de zond on 18.40 uur met een grid heading van 315º?
325º
000º
035º
180º
18. Stereo graphic kaart, compass shift uitrekenen.
-5º
-15º
5º
15º
19. Eisen m.b.t. de PIC?
3 T/O en 3 landingen binnen 90 dagen ook in een simulator?
20. Lijn van min. time track?
weather dependant
grootcirkel.
rhumbline
spherical cap. flight segment
21. Hoe lang is een SNOWTAM geldig?
24 hours
12 hours
3 hours
6 hours
22. Contaminated runway, band 206 psi, wat is de hydroplaning speed?
129 knots
100 knots
80 knots
114 knots
23. Vliegtuig op FL80 en station op 125ft. Wat is de maximum range?
125 nm
24. Vliegtuig vliegt ‘s nachts. Op een grote afstand van station. Welke freq?
25. Relay frequentie in de NAT region when out of range from VHF ground station
131.8MHz
121.5MHz
26. What do you do when you have lost all the nav equipment and you have a comm. failure
return to your aerodrome of departure
take an intermediate level
alternate
onder MNPS vliegen
27. For IFR flights at least one dest. alt. must be selected unless the duration of the flight and the meteo conditions prevailing are such that there is reasonable certainty that, at the ETA at aerodrome of intended landing
and for a reasonable period before and after such time the approach and landing may be under VMC
28. Comm failure in the NAT region
aan je clearance houden
29. afmetingen MNPS
27º/north pole
30. Als je om 10.00 uur naar Europa vliegt, dan:
buiten OTS
zit je in de nachttrack
zit je in de dagtrack
neem je een random route
31. Vliegtuig met anti-ice, men detecteert freezing, wat moet er gebeuren
anti-ice van het vliegtuig aan en weggaan
de-ice vloeistof daar weer boven op
zolang de HOT geldig is, gaan
32. Wat te doen als de HOT verstreken ?
repeat de anti-ice threatment
33. Tot welke hoogte bij noise abatement procedure B (V2+10,20kt), moet je die snelheid vasthouden?
1000ft
1500ft
3000ft
34. Bij noise abatement bij landingen
mag er geen verbod op reverse thrust zijn
35. Bij windshear merk je windverandering en je geeft volgas. Wat moet je doen met je pitch?
tot de stickshaker en vasthouden
klein beetje pitch
negatieve pitch
36.Min req. supplement O2 pressurised aeroplane during an emergency descent available for the entire flight time that cabin pressure altitude exceeds min. x feet
13000ft
25000ft
14000ft
15000ft
37. Squawk 7500 voor hi-jack.
38. Cockpit deur alleen van binnen op slot te doen
39. MEL samengesteld door de operator.
40. Wie moet flight and ground staff van een operations manual voorzien?
de operator
41. `Pressurised aeroplane, vanaf welke hoogte supplemental O2?
10000ft
13000ft
15000ft
16000ft
42. Landing distance required voor een jet?
60% LDA
70% LDA
43. Windshear het beste te ontwijken?
above and upwind
above and downwind
below and upwind
below and downwind
44. Welke nav systems nodig in MNPS?
2 fully serviceable long range independent
45. The p.i.c. shall, within an reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorised, produce the documentation required to be carry out.
46. VFR flights operated as controlled flights shall be equipped in accordance with
IFR equipment requirements
47. Longitudinal separation in MNPS met een constant Mach getal?
10 minuten
20
5
15
48. Twinjet weegt meer dan 8618kg en meer dan 19 pax. Wat is de max tijd naar een suitable aerodrome?
1 uur n-1 cruise speed
49. Microburst and thunderstorm:
at low altitude, divergence, pressure rises
at low altitude, divergence, pressure drops
at high altitude, convergence, pressure rises
at low altitude, convergence, pressure drops
Operational Procedures OKTOBER 2000.
4. The minimum Navigation-equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS-airspace can be at the very least:
A. 1 inertial Navigation Unit
B. 2 inertial Navigation Units and DECCA
C. 2 inertial Navigation Units
D. 3 inertial Navigation Units
5. During the flight of 2 aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least:
A. 5 min
B. 20 min
C. 10 min
D. 15 min
E.
10. Determination of the Aerodrome minimum operating conditions must:
1. Equipment available for navigation
2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway
3. Composition of the flightcrew
4. Obstacles in the vicinity of Approach- and Missed Approach Areas
5. Facility for determining and communicating weather conditions
11. An Air Traffic Unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70N between 5W and 65W, every:
A. 20 deg of longitude
B. 15 deg of longitude
C. 5 deg of longitude
D. 10 deg of longitude
14. During a night-flying operation in VFR-conditions you observe an aircraft from within the cockpit passing from the front left. What light will be observed first?
A. green flashing light
B. green steady light
C. red steady light
D. red flashing light
16. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
A. Compass North
B. Magnetic North
C. True North
D. Grid North
17 During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
A. True North for any chart
B. Grid North for any chart
C. Grid North for a given chart
D. True North for a given chart
18. Astronomic Precession:
- Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in a Southern Hemisphere
19.
A. 2400 m
23. NAT airspace is regulated according to:
A. Rules by bordering States
B.
C. ICAO document 7030
D.
24. With regard to to the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot’s means of information and prevention are:
1. ATIS
2. NOTAMs
3. BIRDTAMs
4. Weather radar
5. Report by another crew
A. 1,2,5
B. 2,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 1,3,4
25. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file, collecting a certain amount of information.
The Operator will see that this file is kept on the ground.
It contains more particularly:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at the destination
2. One copy of the Operational Flightplan and, if required, the weight&balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft’s materiel report.
4. The en-route NOTAM-documentation when specifically issued by the Operator
5. Notification for special loadings
6. For each flight details of the day’s performance and limitations with completed charts.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 2, 4
27. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1430, an Operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without Glidepath/LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
A. VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
B. NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
C. ILS facility, without glidepath (localizer), lowest MDH=200 ft
D. VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
29. Class B aircraft will be able throughout flight-route or alternate-route from this initial route to reach ROC of at least:
A. 300 ft/min with all engines operating at max. continuous power
B. 300 ft/min with n-1 at max continuous power
C. 500 ft/min with all engines operating at max. continuous power
D. 500 ft/min with n-1 at max continuous power
30. The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers sitting in the travelling direction in case of an emergency landing are:
1. Legs together and feet flat on the floor
4. Seatbelds very tightly fastened
5. Head resting on the forearms
31. During de-icing or anti-icing procedure carries out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
- At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage!)
32. Dangerous products that passengers may carry are listed in:
A.
B.
C. IATA documents “Dangerous Product Transportation”
D. ICAO documents “Technical safety instructions for air-transport of Dangerous Products”.
33. The first part of the JAR-OPS is about:
A.
B.
C.
D. Operation by a State-member of the JAA of any civil commercial transportation aircraft.
34. Of which document, a copy needs to be kept on the ground by the Operator at each flight?
A. Flight plan processing
B. Flight route sheet
C. ATC flight-plan
D. Operational flight-plan
36. An aircraft which experiences a Headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a micro-burst may expect, when crossing the micro-burst, to face a windshear of:
A.
B. 80 kts
C.
D.
37. Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing-runway for noise-abatement purposes in VMC:
A. Crosswind component, including gusts, is 10 kts
B. It has a tailwind component of 3 kts and a crosswind including gusts, of 12 kts
C. It has a tailwind component of any value
D.It has no ILS or visual approach-slope guidance
39. Medium Aircraft followed directly by a Heavy Aircraft:
- 9,3 km (5 NM) or 2 minutes
46. To fight a fire in an airconditioned cargo-hold:
A. Extinguish fire only
B. Extinguish fire and reduce airconditioning
C.Fire-fighting is not necessary since the transport of combustable goods in an airconditioned
cargo-hold is forbidden.
D. You turn off the cargo-hold ventilation and extinguish the fire
48. Class A fire can be extinguished by
- H2O
- CO2
- Dry chemical
- Halogen
50. The MEL gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
A. The operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
B. The manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
C. The operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
D. The manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
52. On a one-crew certified VFR-flight. When will a 2nd pilot be required?
A. On a flight with a flight time over three hours
B. Never
C.
D.
Ik hoop dat je er wat aan hebt, succes
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES Juli 2000
1. Wat is de formule expressing de travel precission during transonic and polar flights?
15º/hr sinLm
g (sinLm- sinLo)
g sinLM
g/2sinLm
2. For operation in
Na een accident, hoelang Flight data recorder bewaren?
60 dagen
30 dagen
45 dagen
90 dagen.
3. Kun je een carb. icing krijgen als de temp. 30 graden is humidity van 40 % en vrij van bewolking?
geen kans
4. Mist in de cabine, pressure en temp. drop, waar duidt dit op?
fast decompression.
5. MDH is reffered to treshold alt. if runway treshold is;
2 m (7ft) below aerodrome alt
2 m (7ft) above aerodrome alt
6. CAT C vliegtuig, een indirect visuel approach gevolgd door een visuel manoevring mag alleen als de horizontale visibility min. is;
2400m
1500m
1600m
3600m .
7. Course is plotted minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K a vector KK' which is equal to;
wind at K
wind at K'
mean wind up to next ground isochrone
mean wind from preceding ground isochrone
8. Vlgt vliegt in een horizontal tail wind gust, wat is het gevolg?
a/c tends to descent
9. Een continous loop fire detector operates op het principe dat een increase in temp. produces;
een increase in resistance
een decrease in resistance
een increase in pressure
10. Voor welke vliegtuigen is een FDR verplicht?
> 5700kg
> 20000kg
> 14000kg
> 27000kg
11. Je ziet een vliegtuig van rechtsvoor naar linksvoor vliegen, welk licht zie je?
steady red
steady green
flashing green
flashing red
12. Vraag over CDU/INS, DSTK 100, TK 120 wat is waar?
TKE is 10 graden rechts
je divert van je DSTK
je convergeert naar je DSTK
13. Fire in a wheel, wat is de beste extinguisher?
powder.
APW
Foam
CO2
14. Op een runway 4mm water, hoe heet dit?
contaminated
flooded
15. Na een lek volgt er een slow decompression, wat geeft de cabin ROC indicator aan?
rate of climb
rate of descent.
16. Hazardous material waar?
ICAO appendix 18
ICAO appendix 8
Washington convention
Inst. 300 3-6-1957
17. Gridnavigatie, wat is de bearing van de zond on 18.40 uur met een grid heading van 315º?
325º
000º
035º
180º
18. Stereo graphic kaart, compass shift uitrekenen.
-5º
-15º
5º
15º
19. Eisen m.b.t. de PIC?
3 T/O en 3 landingen binnen 90 dagen ook in een simulator?
20. Lijn van min. time track?
weather dependant
grootcirkel.
rhumbline
spherical cap. flight segment
21. Hoe lang is een SNOWTAM geldig?
24 hours
12 hours
3 hours
6 hours
22. Contaminated runway, band 206 psi, wat is de hydroplaning speed?
129 knots
100 knots
80 knots
114 knots
23. Vliegtuig op FL80 en station op 125ft. Wat is de maximum range?
125 nm
24. Vliegtuig vliegt ‘s nachts. Op een grote afstand van station. Welke freq?
25. Relay frequentie in de NAT region when out of range from VHF ground station
131.8MHz
121.5MHz
26. What do you do when you have lost all the nav equipment and you have a comm. failure
return to your aerodrome of departure
take an intermediate level
alternate
onder MNPS vliegen
27. For IFR flights at least one dest. alt. must be selected unless the duration of the flight and the meteo conditions prevailing are such that there is reasonable certainty that, at the ETA at aerodrome of intended landing
and for a reasonable period before and after such time the approach and landing may be under VMC
28. Comm failure in the NAT region
aan je clearance houden
29. afmetingen MNPS
27º/north pole
30. Als je om 10.00 uur naar Europa vliegt, dan:
buiten OTS
zit je in de nachttrack
zit je in de dagtrack
neem je een random route
31. Vliegtuig met anti-ice, men detecteert freezing, wat moet er gebeuren
anti-ice van het vliegtuig aan en weggaan
de-ice vloeistof daar weer boven op
zolang de HOT geldig is, gaan
32. Wat te doen als de HOT verstreken ?
repeat de anti-ice threatment
33. Tot welke hoogte bij noise abatement procedure B (V2+10,20kt), moet je die snelheid vasthouden?
1000ft
1500ft
3000ft
34. Bij noise abatement bij landingen
mag er geen verbod op reverse thrust zijn
35. Bij windshear merk je windverandering en je geeft volgas. Wat moet je doen met je pitch?
tot de stickshaker en vasthouden
klein beetje pitch
negatieve pitch
36.Min req. supplement O2 pressurised aeroplane during an emergency descent available for the entire flight time that cabin pressure altitude exceeds min. x feet
13000ft
25000ft
14000ft
15000ft
37. Squawk 7500 voor hi-jack.
38. Cockpit deur alleen van binnen op slot te doen
39. MEL samengesteld door de operator.
40. Wie moet flight and ground staff van een operations manual voorzien?
de operator
41. `Pressurised aeroplane, vanaf welke hoogte supplemental O2?
10000ft
13000ft
15000ft
16000ft
42. Landing distance required voor een jet?
60% LDA
70% LDA
43. Windshear het beste te ontwijken?
above and upwind
above and downwind
below and upwind
below and downwind
44. Welke nav systems nodig in MNPS?
2 fully serviceable long range independent
45. The p.i.c. shall, within an reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorised, produce the documentation required to be carry out.
46. VFR flights operated as controlled flights shall be equipped in accordance with
IFR equipment requirements
47. Longitudinal separation in MNPS met een constant Mach getal?
10 minuten
20
5
15
48. Twinjet weegt meer dan 8618kg en meer dan 19 pax. Wat is de max tijd naar een suitable aerodrome?
1 uur n-1 cruise speed
49. Microburst and thunderstorm:
at low altitude, divergence, pressure rises
at low altitude, divergence, pressure drops
at high altitude, convergence, pressure rises
at low altitude, convergence, pressure drops
Operational Procedures OKTOBER 2000.
4. The minimum Navigation-equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS-airspace can be at the very least:
A. 1 inertial Navigation Unit
B. 2 inertial Navigation Units and DECCA
C. 2 inertial Navigation Units
D. 3 inertial Navigation Units
5. During the flight of 2 aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least:
A. 5 min
B. 20 min
C. 10 min
D. 15 min
E.
10. Determination of the Aerodrome minimum operating conditions must:
1. Equipment available for navigation
2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway
3. Composition of the flightcrew
4. Obstacles in the vicinity of Approach- and Missed Approach Areas
5. Facility for determining and communicating weather conditions
11. An Air Traffic Unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70N between 5W and 65W, every:
A. 20 deg of longitude
B. 15 deg of longitude
C. 5 deg of longitude
D. 10 deg of longitude
14. During a night-flying operation in VFR-conditions you observe an aircraft from within the cockpit passing from the front left. What light will be observed first?
A. green flashing light
B. green steady light
C. red steady light
D. red flashing light
16. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
A. Compass North
B. Magnetic North
C. True North
D. Grid North
17 During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
A. True North for any chart
B. Grid North for any chart
C. Grid North for a given chart
D. True North for a given chart
18. Astronomic Precession:
- Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in a Southern Hemisphere
19.
A. 2400 m
23. NAT airspace is regulated according to:
A. Rules by bordering States
B.
C. ICAO document 7030
D.
24. With regard to to the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot’s means of information and prevention are:
1. ATIS
2. NOTAMs
3. BIRDTAMs
4. Weather radar
5. Report by another crew
A. 1,2,5
B. 2,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 1,3,4
25. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file, collecting a certain amount of information.
The Operator will see that this file is kept on the ground.
It contains more particularly:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at the destination
2. One copy of the Operational Flightplan and, if required, the weight&balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft’s materiel report.
4. The en-route NOTAM-documentation when specifically issued by the Operator
5. Notification for special loadings
6. For each flight details of the day’s performance and limitations with completed charts.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 2, 4
27. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1430, an Operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without Glidepath/LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
A. VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
B. NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
C. ILS facility, without glidepath (localizer), lowest MDH=200 ft
D. VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
29. Class B aircraft will be able throughout flight-route or alternate-route from this initial route to reach ROC of at least:
A. 300 ft/min with all engines operating at max. continuous power
B. 300 ft/min with n-1 at max continuous power
C. 500 ft/min with all engines operating at max. continuous power
D. 500 ft/min with n-1 at max continuous power
30. The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers sitting in the travelling direction in case of an emergency landing are:
1. Legs together and feet flat on the floor
4. Seatbelds very tightly fastened
5. Head resting on the forearms
31. During de-icing or anti-icing procedure carries out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
- At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage!)
32. Dangerous products that passengers may carry are listed in:
A.
B.
C. IATA documents “Dangerous Product Transportation”
D. ICAO documents “Technical safety instructions for air-transport of Dangerous Products”.
33. The first part of the JAR-OPS is about:
A.
B.
C.
D. Operation by a State-member of the JAA of any civil commercial transportation aircraft.
34. Of which document, a copy needs to be kept on the ground by the Operator at each flight?
A. Flight plan processing
B. Flight route sheet
C. ATC flight-plan
D. Operational flight-plan
36. An aircraft which experiences a Headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a micro-burst may expect, when crossing the micro-burst, to face a windshear of:
A.
B. 80 kts
C.
D.
37. Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing-runway for noise-abatement purposes in VMC:
A. Crosswind component, including gusts, is 10 kts
B. It has a tailwind component of 3 kts and a crosswind including gusts, of 12 kts
C. It has a tailwind component of any value
D.It has no ILS or visual approach-slope guidance
39. Medium Aircraft followed directly by a Heavy Aircraft:
- 9,3 km (5 NM) or 2 minutes
46. To fight a fire in an airconditioned cargo-hold:
A. Extinguish fire only
B. Extinguish fire and reduce airconditioning
C.Fire-fighting is not necessary since the transport of combustable goods in an airconditioned
cargo-hold is forbidden.
D. You turn off the cargo-hold ventilation and extinguish the fire
48. Class A fire can be extinguished by
- H2O
- CO2
- Dry chemical
- Halogen
50. The MEL gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
A. The operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
B. The manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
C. The operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
D. The manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
52. On a one-crew certified VFR-flight. When will a 2nd pilot be required?
A. On a flight with a flight time over three hours
B. Never
C.
D.